Again like I stated in part 1 of this discuss, I have heard people in various none Christian groups say, one of the major reasons Jesus has to die the way he did was because he was paying for the sins of his previous life. In other words they were buttressing their belief of reincarnation. But we know that Jesus only incarnated but never reincarnated.

So when you begin to teach that the sins of the world was laid on him even on the cross, you are also saying he died the death of a sinner because of sin and that also means he was a sinner. And that is very dangerous a doctrine concerning our Lord Jesus Christ.

Here is an illustration. Barabbas was a murderer and seditionist, who were to be crucified according to the law of the Jews/Romans, but Jesus took his place and he was released. Does that mean Jesus actually committed the very crime of being a murderer? The answer says no! But he took the punishment due the crime of Barabbas which was death. Barabbas then was a type of humanity so that we could be free from the penalty of death.

Here is what the word says about this fact in Heb. 2:9

“But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man”. (KJV)

He tasted death means, he experienced death. And that was in consequence of the fall of Adam, for the word says.. Rom.5: 12 “Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned”

You see what I mean? That he died for all men didn’t make him a sinner, rather he took the punishment due sin unto himself in other to free us from the consequences of the fall (sin) of Adam which is death. He simply carried the consequences, but he didn’t enter into the act of sinning.

By reason of the fall, the whole human race became sinful in their nature, and in their practice added transgression to sinfulness of lifestyle, and so became exposed to death things. To redeem man therefore, Jesus Christ took on him the nature of man, and suffered the penalty due to their sins. This is what a diligent study will reveal from the scriptures and not the other way round as we have always believed and taught.

Now here is what the scriptures said about Jesus, which we must believe and stick to and not our opinions.

“For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him”. 2 Cor.5: 21

“And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin”. 1 John.3: 5.

This I believe is a strong statement for us to consider in line with our discuss. ‘He knew no sin’, means he did not experience sin or have anything to do with sin. And ‘in him is no sin’ means he never had any sin factored within his being. In fact Jesus said the prince of this world cometh and shall find nothing in me. Meaning there was no trace or factor of sin in him for the devil or the religious leaders of the Jews to hold unto in him.

The word “knew” is very important here. We are told in Gen 4: 1 “ And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain” Meaning Adam had an intercourse with his wife and brought forth.

So for Jesus not to know sin means he had no intercourse or any form of personal relationship with sin in anyway. They were never friends, relations, married, or united in any way. For the union of man and sin always produced death as the offspring. That is the wages of sin Rom. 6:23 “For the wages of sin is death; ..”(KJV)

Why do you think he was properly qualified to be the atoning sacrifice for the sins of men, because “ in him is no sin”. He came into the world to destroy the power, pardon the guilt, and cleanse from all men the pollution of sin but yet he did not partake of sin not even in his death. He tasted death the word says, but knew no sin. What a savior!

So Jesus tasted death, which is the result or wages, salaries that sin pays. But he never tasted sin, rather he was a sin offering. “For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him”. 2 Cor.5: 21.

The words tajx chattath, and tajx chattaah, frequently signify sin; but it can be observed that more than a hundred places in the Old Testament where they are used, it meant ‘sin-offering’ ,and this is what the Apostle translated ‘amartia’ here in 2 Cor.5:21, saying… “He hath made him to be sin (amartian, A SIN-OFFERING) for us, who knew no sin”.

What is sin offering then?, that will be our next line of thought. Stop calling Jesus a sinner for he knew no sin.